How do we counter this argument that a friend of mine has made:
"Since all illegally owned guns were originally legally owned guns, then the reduction of legally owned guns would naturally lead to a reduction in illegally owned guns. And taking that a step further, if gun owners are supposedly so responsible about gun ownership, then how were so many of them so criminally negligent to allow their legally owned guns to fall into the hands of irresponsible people? And, if the answer to that is that not all gun owners are responsible enough, then why does the NRA consistently block any attempt to make the acquisition of guns more difficult for irresponsible people?"
The argument really comes down to numbers: If there are less legal guns, there are less legal guns that could become illegal guns through theft, irresponsibility, etc. Is it just totally irrelevant? If so, why?
Yes, I feel stupid having to ask this question so please don't jump on me for that. Help me become better informed and a better 2nd amendment advocate.
"Since all illegally owned guns were originally legally owned guns, then the reduction of legally owned guns would naturally lead to a reduction in illegally owned guns. And taking that a step further, if gun owners are supposedly so responsible about gun ownership, then how were so many of them so criminally negligent to allow their legally owned guns to fall into the hands of irresponsible people? And, if the answer to that is that not all gun owners are responsible enough, then why does the NRA consistently block any attempt to make the acquisition of guns more difficult for irresponsible people?"
The argument really comes down to numbers: If there are less legal guns, there are less legal guns that could become illegal guns through theft, irresponsibility, etc. Is it just totally irrelevant? If so, why?
Yes, I feel stupid having to ask this question so please don't jump on me for that. Help me become better informed and a better 2nd amendment advocate.